Can you enlighten us as to what you've learned so far ?

3AM, works play absolutely NO part in salvation.

The law was never intended by God to save us. It couldn't. According to Paul the purpose of the law was/is to show us that we need a savior and cannot save ourselves, hence need Jesus:

What, then, was the purpose of the law? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come. (Galatians 3:19)

The law is only a shadow of the good things that are coming—not the realities themselves. For this reason it can never, by the same sacrifices repeated endlessly year after year, make perfect those who draw near to worship. (Hebrews 10:1)

I do not set aside the grace of God, for if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing! (Galatians 2:21)

For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it. (James 2:10)

All who rely on observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law." (Galatians 3:10)

The law is not based on faith; on the contrary, "The man who does these things will live by them. (Galatians 3:12)

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree." (Galatians 3:13)

For if the inheritance depends on the law, then it no longer depends on a promise; but God in his grace gave it to Abraham through a promise. (Galatians 3:18)

Is the law, therefore, opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law. (Galatians 3:21)

Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. (Romans 3:20-21)

For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous. The law was added so that the trespass might increase. But where sin increased, grace increased all the more, so that, just as sin reigned in death, so also grace might reign through righteousness to bring eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. (Romans 5:19-21)

For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the sinful nature, God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful man to be a sin offering. And so he condemned sin in sinful man in order that the righteous requirements of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the sinful nature but according to the Spirit. (Romans 8:3-4)

Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes. (Romans 10:4)

But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under law. (Galatians 5:18)

We who are Jews by birth and not 'Gentile sinners' know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified. (Galatians 2:15-16)

I would like to learn just one thing from you: Did you receive the Spirit by observing the law, or by believing what you heard? Does God give you his Spirit and work miracles among you because you observe the law, or because you believe what you heard? (Galatians 3:2-5)

So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be justified by faith. Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law. (Galatians 33:24-25)

Jesus was ALWAYS the end. Jesus himself more than once said that HE was the fulfillment of the law. Your view sounds way too much like the Pelagian heresy.

Jesus said that he would draw all men to himself, not the law. If the law was capable of saving us then Jesus' death was a very cruel cosmic joke and totally unnecessary. Why didn'rt God simply impart his Spirit into us to help us obey the law perfectly? But God never intended to save us via the law. His promise to Abraham predated the law by several hundred years. The law was intended as a temporary measure in place only until Christ came. Now that Christ has been crucified and resurrected, there is no need for the law. If scripture is clear on one thing it is clear on this.

Pax.

Well, that is just the difference betwen you and me.
When the Bible (God says)..... 2:12   Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.  (Phillippipains)
 I just tend to believe what God says, But that's just me.

I never said it did.


And, I've said this also.
 So then, I agree with you.
Here is where we part company.

Which Law, is Paul refering to here ?

There needs to be an understanding that God has 2 Laws going on in the OT.

#1.) The Law, God wrote out Himself onto stone tablets.

 #2.) The Law God had Moses wrote out, and placed in a book.

  No here is anything ever mentioned about 'sacrifices' in the Law, that God wrote out on stone tablets.
Deut.  5:17   Thou shalt not kill. 
  5:18   Neither shalt thou commit adultery. 
  5:19   Neither shalt thou steal. 
  5:20   Neither shalt thou bear false witness against thy neighbour. 
  5:21   Neither shalt thou desire thy neighbour's wife, neither shalt thou covet thy neighbour's house, his field, or his manservant, or his maidservant, his ox, or his ass, or any [thing] that [is] thy neighbour's. 
  5:22   These words the LORD spake unto all your assembly in the mount out of the midst of the fire, of the cloud, and of the thick darkness, with a great voice: and he added no more. And he wrote them in two tables of stone, and delivered them unto me. 

The context of that Bible verse (James 2:10-12) clearly shows that it refers to the Law God wrote out, NOT the Law Moses wrote.
Again......which Law is being refered to here ?
The Law of Moses, was written WAY AFTER Adam & Eve sinned, right ?

How did he misuse the scriptures?  Does it not mean what it says?  If "work out your own salvation" doesn't mean something that we must do, then what does it mean?  Is obedience required for salvation?  Do we have to do anything in order to be saved?  Or was it all taken care of (election) even before creation as the reformed would have us believe,

And if he doesn't respond I would still be interested in your answer to my question.

Lee Freeman,

Maybe I should get a copy.

Thanks


GTM