I would like to offer some input, if you would have it. I'm not that smart, and I definitely cannot take credit for the information I know. I learned it from men smarter than me, and am only presenting it, is all. That's my little disclaimer, LOL.
As for the Romans 10 verse "Whoever calls on the name of the Lord will be saved"
Much emphasis is placed on the word "whoever" or other translations "whosoever". However, the problem here is that there is no equivalent of the English word "whosoever/whoever" in the Greek language. That means when John wrote John 3:16, or when Paul wrote Romans 10:13, they did not write "whosoever", because there is no such word in the Greek.
In the statement "Whosoever believes", in John 3:16 for example, those 2 words are not the translation of two Greek words, but instead, the translation of an entire Greek phrase (3 words, I believe). Using John 3:16 for example: pas ho pisteown. This literally reads "all the believing" or "all the believers" or "everyone who believes". In the Romans 10:13 case, it is "everyone who calls". (The ESV translates Rom 10:13 this way). The point is, the old English word "whosoever" has connotations that the authors John and Paul did not intend to be in their verse. "whosoever" does not suddenly "erase" the concept of unconditional election or disprove predestination. It simply means "everyone who.." does such-and-such. Are the statements "everyone who believes will be saved" and "everyone who calls upon the Name of the Lord will be saved" compatible with unconditional election/predestination? Yes, they are. They do not serve to either prove or disprove anything.
That being said, when Paul writes "everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved", he is not saying anything that disproves unconditional election. For both Calvinists and Arminians believe that everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord will find him to be a perfect Saviour. There is nothing in Paul's statement in Rom 10:13 that says anything to the effect of who will call upon the name of the Lord, who has the capability to call upon His name, or why they call upon his name. (Both John and Paul answer these questions in John 6, 8, 10, and Romans 1, 3, 8, for example - No one can come to me unless it is granted to him by the Father - Jesus speaking, John 6:44, 65.)
The only thing we can derive from Rom 10:13 and John 3:16, is that yes, every single caller and every single believer will in fact be saved. This does not disprove the Calvinist doctrine of election, nor does it prove conditional Election (non-Calvinism)
Also, someone mentioned 2 Peter 3:9, but I would like to respectfully urge you to check the context.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance.
What "promise" is the verse speaking of? The promise of salvation, or something else? If you would read the prior 8 verses, you'd find that the promise being spoken of is not salvation, but the Lord's 2nd coming. So the verse is not a salvation verse at all, but a second coming verse!
Next, who is the "you" that God is "patient towards"? Every single human being head for head, or the people to whom Peter is writing? Again, if you read the first 8 verses of 2 Peter, and also find out who Peter addresses the letters of both 1st and 2nd Peter to, you would find that Peter is specifically writing to "Gods elect". (1 Pet 1:1-2). In writing his second letter to them (2 Peter), he starts the letter by saying "I'm writing to those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours". So again, he is writing to believers. Not only are they believers, but they "obtained their faith" (suggesting that faith itself is a gift).
Then, when we get to chapter 3, Peter starts the chapter by saying: "2Pe 3:1 This is now the second letter that I am writing to you, beloved.. The second letter? That means the same group that Peter wrote to in 1 Peter is also the people he is writing to in 2 Peter. And again, 1 Peter 1:1-2 says "To God's elect..". Therefore, 2nd Peter in total, including chapter 3, and including verse 9, are written to Gods' elect, just as 1 Peter was.
Further, if you look at the pronouns from 2 Peter 3:1-9, and follow the "you", you will notice something amazing. Peter is striving to distinguish and make the difference between two groups or "types" of people: "you" (ie, God's elect"), and "them" (ie, the ungodly men whom God is planning to destroy) (2 Pet 3:7)
For a visual aid, see the chapter below with all of the pronouns color coded:
Here are the opening statements of Peter’s two letters. Notice who he is specifically addressing his letters to:
1 Peter 1:1 Peter...to God's elect...
2 Peter 1:1 Peter...to those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours (ie, God’s elect, since God’s elect (chosen people) are the ones who obtain/receive the gift of faith)
And now, observe the opening line of 2 Peter Chapter 3:
(1) This is now the second letter that I am writing to you, beloved…
I will paste the entirety of 2nd Peter Chapter 3 here. You’ll notice that anytime Peter says “you