from what I can gather the author appears to be advocating an even time burial of Christ, that is after 6 PM, being a Friday making for a Thursday crucifixion. On page 6 the author without proper exegesis forces the reader to accept Mark 15:42 and Matthew 27:57 "when even had come" to mean "being the evening already" to mean that preparation for burial and subsequent entombment occurred after sunset on 15 Nisan.
The author states "Even if it were "late noon" when Joseph started negotiating for the body, he could not have had the burial finished before sunset. It simply would not have been possible…”
It is true I have yet to read the rest of this thesis, including how such a conclusion was arrived at in Par. 5.2 but I am curious to see how it equates with John 19:38-42:
“38 And after this Joseph of Arimathaea, being a disciple of Jesus, but secretly for fear of the Jews, besought Pilate that he might take away the body of Jesus: and Pilate gave him leave. He came therefore, and took the body of Jesus. 39 And there came also Nicodemus, which at the first came to Jesus by night, and brought a mixture of myrrh and aloes, about an hundred pound weight. 40 Then took they the body of Jesus, and wound it in linen clothes with the spices, as the manner of the Jews is to bury. 41 Now in the place where he was crucified there was a garden; and in the garden a new sepulchre, wherein was never man yet laid. 42 There laid they Jesus therefore because of the Jews' preparation day; for the sepulchre was nigh at hand.”
These passages clearly state that Joseph and Nicodemus were active in preparing the body of Jesus with wounded linen and spices because it was the Jew’s Day of Preparation (i.e 14 Nisan/Passover) still BEFORE the High Sabbath had started. By verse 42, the body had been wrapt in the usual manner and finally lain in the tomb. This event is in accordance with Jewish customs that no burials are to take place on a Sabbath and this includes high day Sabbaths.
Now these verses in John 19:38-42 do appear to contradict Mark 15:42 and Matthew 27:57 as the author chooses to interpret "when even had come" to mean "being the evening already" or that 6PM had passed. But the contradiction only appears how we read Scripture and indeed what translation we are reading.
In my view Mark 15:42 “And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath,”. There are three elements to contend with here: 1) even was come 2) it was the day of preparation 3) the day before the Sabbath. Points 2 and 3 are explicit meaning that the high day Sabbath had not yet started. This means we ought to check the translation of “even had come” to either mean it was already past 6 PM or that 6 PM was approaching. To resolve the issue we ought to consult the original meaning in Greek. From [Cut] we can see that this verse corresponds to “and already of becoming evening since it was preparation which is before the Sabbath”. As read in original Greek the meaning becomes clearer that even was becoming not “even had come”.