I would like for any CoC person to step up and answer these questions from John chapter three.
Question #1~ To what purpose did the Holy Spirit willed this discourse to be part of the holy scriptures?
I am not to try to speak for the Holy Spirit to say "It's this." All I can do is derive from what what is written. The purpose the Holy Spirit had is to give the message that He wrote down. He wanted us to know that one must be born of the water and the Spirit in order to enter God's kingdom.
Question #2~Was Nicodemus born again before this discourse, during, or later? Why do you believe your position to be correct?
Based on the text, if he was, it would have been after. Jesus gave Nicodemus an instructionJohn 3:7 You should not be surprised at my saying, ‘You must be born again.’
It is not written in this passage that he was thus born again at this time. Plus God's kingdom arriving also happened later Luke 9:27.
Question #3~Why do you beleive that water in John 3:5 is speaking of one being baptized in baptism, when the OT is totally silence concerning such a doctrine, and without question, was not practiced as a means of a sinner being born of God.
In the OT forgiveness was obtained by sacrifice of animals. Also back then there was the ceremonial washing of utensils to be clean. By the 1st century, there was the mikveh. The mikveh was huge in the Jewish culture for cleansing.http://www.essene.com/B'nai-Amen/MysticalImmersion.htm
John the baptist employed the mikveh on many in Israel. There is a precedence for water and the Spirit being baptism.
There is no precedence for water and the Spirit being physical birth.
Question #4Why did Jesus leave out water in John 3:6, as he distinguishes between being born of the flesh and being born of the Spirit, if indeed water is to be understood to mean water baptism? Would you not know that it must be included, if indeed it was part of being born of the Spirit, as you desperately want people to believe. Why did Jesus leave it out?For one, because he had just covered it in vs.3, 5. There were no verses in that conversatiin. Verses were introduced with the King James Bible. Jesus was having a conversation with Nicodemus. Jesus was answering Nicodemus's question earlier question
John 3:4 “How can someone be born when they are old?” Nicodemus asked. “Surely they cannot enter a second time into their mother’s womb to be born!”
Hence, the flesh and Spirit answer.
Jesus is allowed of course to explain things in his own way. He had already covered water and the Spirit twice, he doesn't have to meet a quota.
Last Question #5~In John 3:16, Jesus gave a statement of fact concerning those who have everlasting life, and is it not true, that baptism is not even mentioned as an evidence of men who will not perish~so, if baptism is essential before one can have eternal life, then why did not Jesus mention it when telling Nicodemus who will perish and who will not? Also, John 3:36 Jesus clearly teaches us that one who believes is the one who gives scriptural evidence that he hath everlasting life. And he who gives that evidence is he who should be baptized just as John the Baptist taught, when he said, bring forth works meets for repentance! Are Jesus and John in complete agreement, that faith and godly works, qualify's men to be baptized, and them only.
Again, because Jesus had already covered it in the conversation and He doesn't have to follow how someone might think he should say it. He covered it. Later in the conversation he covered believing in him, and coming into the light.
Lastly, in John 3:36, by speaking of one rejecting the Son, it shows that he has a choice, and that salvation or lack thereof, is a result. Someone is already lost. If he believes in the Son, then he is saved, generally speaking.John 3:36 Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God’s wrath remains on them.