I Admire Dispensationalism

[raggthyme]

"Dating
According to early tradition, this book was composed near the end of Domitian's reign, around the year 95 AD."

"Those who favour the later date appeal to the earliest external testimony, that of the Christian father Irenaeus (c. 150-202),[21] who wrote that he received his information from people who knew John personally. Domitian, according to Eusebius of Caesarea (c. 263–339), started the persecution referred to in the book. While some recent scholars have questioned the existence of a large-scale Domitian persecution,[22] others believe that Domitian's insistence on being treated as a god may have been a source of friction between the Church and Rome.[23]"

From Wikipedia article on Revelation

" (1:9). Irenaeus places the Seer's exile in Patmos at the end of Domitian's reign."

"The Emperor Domitian reigned A.D. 81-96. In all matters of Joannine tradition Irenaeus deserves exceptional credit. His lifetime bordered upon the Apostolic age and his master, St. Polycarp, had been among the disciples of St. John. Eusebius, chronicling the statement of Irenaeus without any misgivings, adds as the year of the Seer's exile the fourteenth of Domitian's reign. St. Jerome also, without reserve or hesitation, follows the same tradition."


I see no reason to change the traditional date. Furthermore, those I have met that insist on an early date do so because of FAULTY exegesis of the book.

Coop

Evidence for the early date: 70 A.D.

Let's begin with what the word Apocalypse means. The accepted and understood meaning is that it deals with the end times, with what is going to happen at the end of the world. Also, the popular thinking is that this is about what is ominous, anarchical, and disastrous. However, the word, Apocalypse, has the same meaning as the word Revelation, which comes from the Greek word, apokalypsis, meaning the “discourser of events,

[raggthyme]

I would also add my own little word study.

Rev 1:19
Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter;

This verse is often used to say "hereafter" is referring to things that won't take place until some time in the distant future.

KJV Strong's G3326 μετά (meta)
KJV Strong's G5023 ταῦτα (tauta)

From my study (using Blue Letter Bible), I found 3326 5023 is most often translated as "After this", "After these things" or "Afterwards" and in every place I found, the term is referring to something happening within a fairly short amount of time. Even in other places in Revelation the context gives no indication that there is a gap of several thousand years between events. See Rev 7:1, 7:9, 9:12, 15:5, 18:1, 19:1, 20:3

What biblical evidence do you have to support the idea that Rev 1:19 and (the latter part of) 4:1 are the only exceptions?

[MixedEmotions]

I guess that admiration of some parts of dispensational theology is also deemed preterist in nature.

What's with the Spanish Inquisitions guys?

What was written in the original post was NOT preterist in content at all.  Anti-dispensational in some regards, yes, but not preterist.