Author Topic: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?  (Read 198 times)

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Offline dan p

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WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« on: Tue Jan 17, 2023 - 14:56:21 »
ROM 5:13 For  until  the  LAW , sin was  in the  world , BUT   SIN , is  not  being  IMPUTED , there  being  NO  LAW .

#1 But  death  reigned from  Adam until Moses even  over  the  ones NOT  having  sinned after the  likeness of  Adam , who  is a  PATTERN of  the  coming  one ,

 #2 How  then  was  Adam then  saved IF  there  was  no  IMPUTED  SIN ?

 #3 If  there is  no  IMPUTED  sin , how  will those  who  DIED   ,  from  Adam  to  Moses be  JUDGED ?

 #4 Does  ATONEMENT fit  in  here and  applied  to  Adam ?

 dan p

Offline Reformer

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #1 on: Tue Jan 17, 2023 - 20:52:43 »
dan p:

   The scriptures are explicitly clear that no one was officially saved until the sacrifice and shedding of blood of our Lord and Messiah Jesus. His, of course, was the final sacrifice.

    The Hebrews letter, throughout, points directly to this fact. The blood of animals atoned for sins but could not abolish them. Hebrews 2:17 addresses this very thing. The answer to your number 4 question is Yes.

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Offline DaveW

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #2 on: Wed Jan 18, 2023 - 07:00:05 »
#2 How  then  was  Adam then  saved IF  there  was  no  IMPUTED  SIN ?
The church I attended in highschool had an easy answer for that: He was NOT saved.  They believed everyone who died before the crucifixion was already burning in hell. 

Acts 4:12
And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved.”


Since no one knew the name of Jesus, they were all doomed.


Ah - the joys of proof-texting. 

Offline dan p

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #3 on: Wed Jan 18, 2023 - 13:51:32 »
Your  thoughts  on  Acts 2:36 they all  knew his  name !

In  Acts 2:38  Peter  preached to  Israel  to  REPENT  and  be  BAPTIZED  in  the  name  of  Jesus  Christ for  the  forgiveness of  SINS  and you  will  receive the gift of  then Holy  Spirit .

And  the  gospels of  Matt ,  Luke , Mark  and  John and  Acts are  OT  GROUND .

dan p
« Last Edit: Wed Jan 18, 2023 - 13:55:59 by dan p »

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #3 on: Wed Jan 18, 2023 - 13:51:32 »

Online Wycliffes_Shillelagh

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #4 on: Wed Jan 18, 2023 - 14:08:08 »
#1 But  death  reigned from  Adam until Moses even  over  the  ones NOT  having  sinned after the  likeness of  Adam , who  is a  PATTERN of  the  coming  one ,

 #2 How  then  was  Adam then  saved IF  there  was  no  IMPUTED  SIN ?
The answer is contained within your question.

Adam is a "likeness," and "a pattern of the coming one." 

i.e. not a real person

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #4 on: Wed Jan 18, 2023 - 14:08:08 »

Offline NyawehNyoh

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #5 on: Fri Jan 20, 2023 - 13:15:19 »
.
ROM 5:13 For  until  the  LAW , sin was  in the  world , BUT   SIN , is  not  being  IMPUTED , there  being  NO  LAW

In other words: where there is no law to break, there are no law breakers. However, that doesn't mean folks lacking law and order aren't sinners. For example:

Gen 13:13 . . But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before The Lord exceedingly.

Now technically The Lord couldn't charge the men of Sodom with breaking His laws because at the time none were officially codified. However, there's the matter of conscience. In other words, those people had a sense of right and wrong (Gen 3:22) so God slammed people on their own basis where His were unavailable. (Rom 2:14-15)



How  then  was  Adam then  saved IF  there  was  no  IMPUTED  SIN ?

Adam was aware that a savior was on the way (Gen 3:15) and his son Abel was a prophet. (Luke 11:50-51)
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Offline 4WD

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Re: WHEN WAS SIN IMPUTED ?
« Reply #6 on: Sat Jan 21, 2023 - 05:57:53 »
There is law and then there is the law of Moses.  The fact that the law of Moses did not exist does not mean there was no law.

Rom 2:14  For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, [of Moses] by nature do what the law [of Moses] requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law [of Moses].

A law is basically that system of rules and regulations in the society that one lives by.  As such, there is virtually never a situation where there is no law.  The only such situation exists when the individual is incapable of recognizing and understanding the existence of the rules and regulations to live by.  That occurs in the very young and the mentally incapacitated.

There was and is a law even in such places where Moses has never been heard of, let alone God of the Bible.  Even in the realm of the murderous Genghis Kahn there was law. It was not the law of Moses, but it was law.

 Thus, Rom 5:12  Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned--   And that because there was law even if it was not the law of Moses.
« Last Edit: Sat Jan 21, 2023 - 06:00:27 by 4WD »

 

     
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