In the context of Mt 3:11 John is speaking to the Pharisees and Saducees that rejected his baptism. John said to those Jews that rejected his baptism that he baptized them with water. Why would John say to these Pharisees and Saducess that rejected his baptism that he baptized them with water? No one in the context requested to be baptized, but the context has John telling people he had not baptized that he did baptize them with water.
He is JUST making a "general statement" speaking to everyone, not just those you keep referring to....................I just don't see what point you are trying to make?
Mt 3:7 "But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees
come to his baptism, he said unto them
, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come? Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance: And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to [our] father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire. I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and [with] fire:"
So John was speaking to these Pharisees and Saducees when he said "I indeed baptize you with water".
Since he did not baptize those Pharisees and Saducees with water, John is using the pronoun "you" both times in a general, generic sense. So from this context it cannot be exactly determined who the pronoun "you" refers to therefore people cannot make themselves the second 'you' and claim that Christ baptized them with the Holy Spirit and fire.