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Debbie_55
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« Reply #45 on: November 08, 2009, 03:29:12 PM »

When Jesus was baptized of John is was for cleansing of any sin as even though Jesus was Spirit he was also man and was washed clean to begin his ministry.

I won't even begin to address what I believe to be several fundamental errors in your post here (nothing personal about you; I believe we all have error in some way).  This one quote is enough to draw attention to the way it seems you are reading your Bible.

Do you seriously believe that the reason Jesus was baptized was to be cleansed of sins?  At the very least you are implying it, but I would say you have gone beyond implication to outright statement.

I hope I am just misunderstanding you here. I really do.  Confused

soterion I deleted the post about Jesus and sin as I was wrong in the way I said it and I thank you for pointing this out to me. I went deeper into the word and this is what I found as to why Jesus had to be baptized through Johns baptism. It was for the fulfillment of righteousness that Jesus was water baptized as Jesus had to prepare himself for the ministry and to be made a sacrifice for righteousness for everyone who believes and calls on His name. 


Mat 3:14  But John forbade him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
Mat 3:15  And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
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« Reply #45 on: November 08, 2009, 03:29:12 PM »

 
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« Reply #46 on: November 08, 2009, 05:09:30 PM »

Debbie_55,

In post #21 on page 2 you said the following:

Quote
Acts 2:38,39 When we repent of our sins and ask Jesus into our hearts we are also receiving the promise of God that his Spirit will come and dwell in our hearts and teach us of all things we need to learn, John 14:26. The baptism that Peter was talking about in Acts 2:38 was a Spiritual rebirth through the word of God. Some people think it is being dunked or sprinkled with water the way John the Baptist did and there is nothing wrong with that for it is an outward appearance to man that you have received Jesus and the Holy Spirit into your life...

I understood you to be saying that the baptism in Acts 2:38 does not involve water.  You said, "Some people think it is being dunked or sprinkled with water the way that John the Baptist did..." That tells me you don't think so.

That is why I posted to you to compare Acts 2:38 with Acts 10:47-48.  The baptism in the name of Jesus Christ in Acts 10:47-48 is water immersion.  The baptism in Acts 2:38 is also in the name of Jesus Christ.

Letting Scripture define Scripture leads me to the conclusion that the baptism in Acts 2:38 is water immersion.  It is the same apostle teaching the same thing in both contexts.

Either I have completely misunderstood your point about Acts 2:38 and water in the above quote, or you are skirting the issue by continuously saying that water immersion is okay.  Saying that water immersion is okay is not not dealing with the point being made here.  

Keep in mind that I am not the only one who understood you to say that the baptism in Acts 2:38 did not involve water; bvaug got the same impression from you.  If we did misunderstand you, then it is a good thing we can post back and forth and clear things up.  Smile

This is what Smith's Bible dictionary says:
to be baptized for Christ shows an intention to become a true follower of Christ. John baptized with water unto repentance but as a sign of it. Perhaps only a sign of their willingness to enroll themselves among Johns followers. Jesus himself did not baptize with water, but with the Spirit and Christian baptism was only instituted after the resurrection when the Lord gave the commission to his apostles to go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature.  

Act 10:47  Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
 
this verse shows that these men had already received the Holy Spirit, but wanted to be baptized in water also as followers of Christ. So I believe both verses in Acts to be water, but not for the receiving of the Holy Spirit, but an outward appearance to others that they have repented and received the Holy Spirit already.
 

Many people prior to Pentecost had received the Holy Spirit.  The purpose was not salvation; rather it was empowerment for particular abilities.  It was not an indwelling by the Holy Spirit for the individual who had been saved.  It was not even necessary that the one who received the empowering Holy Spirit was even a believer. (see e.g., Balaam, Num 24:2, Saul, 1 Sam 19:20-24).  A study of the work of the Holy Spirit in the Old Testament is an interesting one and should be undertaken by all.  

I think that there are two roles for the Holy Spirit indicated even after Pentecost.  The two roles are (1) indwelling of every one who is saved, and (2) empowering of a select few to work miracles.  With this understanding of the function of the Holy Spirit in the lives of men, some of the apparent confusion in passages such as Acts 8 concerning the Samaritans, Acts 10 concerning the Gentiles, and Acts 19 concerning the 12 Ephesian disciples begin to make sense.  In the case of those before Pentecost, the coming of the Holy Spirit on an individual did not indicate anything about the salvation of the person, rather it only gave power to accomplish certain tasks; it did not constitute indwelling.  

I believe that same thing carried over after Pentecost.  Thus neither the events of Acts 2:4 nor the events of Acts 10:44 constitute the indwelling Holy Spirit for salvation.  Both circumstances were the coming of the Holy Spirit upon the apostles in the case of Acts2:4 and the Gentiles in the case of Acts 10:44 for empowerment to do the miraculous.  It gave those select individuals the power to perform miracles (speak in tongues and prophesy).  It did not give any of them the indwelling Holy Spirit of salvation.  The indwelling Holy Spirit was given (Acts 2:38) when the people repented and were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.  That is the same reason that Peter directed that the Gentiles be baptized.
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« Reply #46 on: November 08, 2009, 05:09:30 PM »

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soterion
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« Reply #47 on: November 08, 2009, 05:57:51 PM »

I went deeper into the word and this is what I found as to why Jesus had to be baptized through Johns baptism. It was for the fulfillment of righteousness that Jesus was water baptized as Jesus had to prepare himself for the ministry and to be made a sacrifice for righteousness for everyone who believes and calls on His name. 


Mat 3:14  But John forbade him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
Mat 3:15  And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.


Another reason why Jesus had to be baptized is found in John 1:29-34.  John was sent to baptize so that He who is the Messiah may be made manifest.
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« Reply #48 on: November 08, 2009, 06:08:53 PM »

This is what Smith's Bible dictionary says:
to be baptized for Christ shows an intention to become a true follower of Christ. John baptized with water unto repentance but as a sign of it. Perhaps only a sign of their willingness to enroll themselves among Johns followers. Jesus himself did not baptize with water, but with the Spirit and Christian baptism was only instituted after the resurrection when the Lord gave the commission to his apostles to go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature. 

Act 10:47  Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
 
this verse shows that these men had already received the Holy Spirit, but wanted to be baptized in water also as followers of Christ. So I believe both verses in Acts to be water, but not for the receiving of the Holy Spirit, but an outward appearance to others that they have repented and received the Holy Spirit already.
 

One exercise that you might find interesting is to go through the New Testament and write down every passage that directly states or strongly implies the purpose of baptism (Christ's baptism, not John's).  Start from just before His ascension when He is giving the Great Commission to the apostles, then go all the way through Acts and the letters.  A concordance would be indispensable for this.

Write down the passages and then write down what they say about the purpose of baptism.  Be careful about reading your own theology into the passages (something we can all be prone to do if we are not careful) but instead just read and write down what they say. 

You might be surprised.
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« Reply #49 on: November 08, 2009, 07:11:27 PM »

by bro.tan,
Quote
These laws are found in the Holy Bible; beginning with Genesis and ending with Revelation.
Not exactly. I died to the O.T. law.
Romans 3:9, 19- 29
All Have Sinned
   
9 What then? Are we better than they? Not at all. For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.
19 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin.God’s Righteousness Through Faith
   
21 But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22 even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all who believe. For there is no difference; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, 26 to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
Boasting Excluded
   
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law.
29 Or is He the God of the Jews only?



The Power is in the Blood.
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« Reply #50 on: November 08, 2009, 07:43:23 PM »

by bro.tan,
Quote
These laws are found in the Holy Bible; beginning with Genesis and ending with Revelation.
Not exactly. I died to the O.T. law.
Romans 3:9, 19- 29
All Have Sinned
   
9 What then? Are we better than they? Not at all. For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.
19 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin.God’s Righteousness Through Faith
   
21 But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22 even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all who believe. For there is no difference; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, 26 to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
Boasting Excluded
   
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law.
29 Or is He the God of the Jews only?



The Power is in the Blood.

None of that has anything at all to do with this thread.  Why did you put it here?
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« Reply #50 on: November 08, 2009, 07:43:23 PM »

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« Reply #51 on: November 08, 2009, 08:05:46 PM »

I quoted from reply #13. But my vote goes to larry2 for post #4.

I'm so not trying to interrupt the fundamentalism with the Baptism thing. But what the hay... Christ was baptized in the flesh means He fulfilled all righteousness of the law. It pleased God. We are buried in baptism means we identify with his death. I've yet to read He was buried in "water"
Oh did i mention i liked larry2's answer to the O.P.? Which (besides yours) do you like best?
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« Reply #52 on: November 08, 2009, 10:44:31 PM »

Debbie_55
Let us go over Acts 2:38 again 

Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Acts 2:38 (KJV)

I am trying hard to understand what you are saying. I will tell you what I understand and you tell me if it is the same thing you understand.

This passage tells me that once we have received the gospel and believed it then we are to repent (which is to turn our life from sin to living in the light) and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin and you shall receive the Holy Ghost

To me this means that water baptism is in view because we are commanded to be baptized and it is something we must submit to rather that something just happens to us. Not only that we see examples of it being carried out in water in other passages. I see that is is for the remission of sins and it gives the spirit which makes it the spiritual baptism that Jesus was to baptize with noting that it now carries Jesus name making it the baptism he was to baptize with.

It is a spiritual baptism even though it is through water which lines with one must born with water and spirit as Jesus had said. It does combine the two. Paul explains just what spiritual work God is doing through this operation in Romans 6:3ff.

The thing I have trouble understanding in your thoughts is the symbolic view. While it is true in a way it symbolizes the DB&R of Christ and our means to apply it to us it is the real Operation of God doing just as the Spirit through the Apostles taught. God really is using the water baptism to relate us to the work of the cross. It is where and how he chose to bring us to the blood of Christ.

I admit I might not have done a good job of expressing my thoughts but hope it was close enough that you can get the gist of what I am trying to say.

Do you think that the verse teaches one must repent and be baptized (in water) in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin to receive the spirit? Is there something I miss here that shows it to be saying something different if so please show me and the scriptures that make it so. Otherwise I will have to assume the it is read just as written and means just what it says.
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« Reply #53 on: November 09, 2009, 02:59:15 PM »

I have rewritten everything I have said on this topic and I hope it explains what putting on Christ is and what baptism truly means. It's somewhat lengthy, but explains with scripture everything I have said and also corrected.

BAPTISM

We put on Jesus by the renewal of our mind, body and soul through Jesus life, death and resurrection by which we can reconcile ourselves back to Gods grace and mercy through His Salvation of renewal and rebirth of spirit. We now have the mind of Christ as joint heirs with Jesus as we walk in the path of Jesus and not our own path anymore.

John 3:3-21 except a man be born again of water and Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. Vs.6 that which is born of the Flesh is flesh and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Flesh cannot perceive the things of the Spirit and is enmity against God, Romans 8:6, 7.

Sin separates us from God because God is a spirit and can only recognize his own children by what spirit is living in their hearts. We have to renew, rebirth - born again, Gods Spirit within us in order to be called a child of God and see the kingdom of heaven. We now put off the old man (flesh) and put on the new man (Spirit), Colossians 3:1-17. We are renewed by the word of God and through the Holy Spirit teaching us of all things, John 14:26.

Acts 2:38,39 When we repent of our sins and ask Jesus into our hearts we are also receiving the promise of God that his Spirit will come and dwell in our hearts and teach us of all things we need to learn, John 14:26. The baptism that Peter was talking about in Acts 2:38 was a Spiritual rebirth through the word of God. Some people think it is being dunked or sprinkled with water the way John the Baptist did and there is nothing wrong with that for it is an outward appearance to man that you have received Jesus and the Holy Spirit into your life, Matthew 3:11, but Jesus himself never baptized with water for the baptism of Jesus was for receiving the Spirit of God (Holy Spirit) that helps us to know the will of the Father, 1 Thessalonians 4:1-12.

There is nothing wrong with immersion in water as this is an outward appearance to others that you have received Gods Salvation and the Holy Spirit. When the Disciples where in the upper room they all received the Holy Spirit, not by immersion of water, but by Gods Spirit falling on them. What about those people who can not be immersed in water that is incapacitated. Peter did not say that it was through water that we receive the Holy Spirit in Acts 10:47, 48 he was saying that others should not forbid anyone who wants to be immersed in water, but repentance must come first and at the same time of repenting we also receive the Holy Spirit according to Acts 2:38,39.

This is from the Jerusalem Bible:
John 4:1 When Jesus heard that the Pharisees had found out that he was making and baptizing more disciples than John though in fact it was his disciples who baptized, not Jesus himself he left Judaea and went back to Galilee.

Johns baptism was for repentance, not for the receiving of the Holy Spirit as no one even knew anything of a Holy Spirit until Jesus taught them that another comforter would come down and the Holy Spirit was given on the day of Pentecost in the upper room. When Jesus was baptized of John is was to fulfill righteousness as what we all do through water baptism as an outward appearance to others that you have been made righteous through Christ.
Mat 3:14 But John forbade him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

Mark 10:39; 16:15,16; Acts 2:38 It is Gods Spirit that was in Christ and which we are now baptized or have received as the disciples did on the day of Pentecost as when Jesus ascended into Heaven the Holy Spirit came down and fell on those who received Jesus and his word. The baptism that Jesus and Peter was talking about was a Spiritual rebirth through Gods word, not water, Luke 3:16, as Peter taught it was through repentance and accepting Jesus and his teachings is when we receive the Holy Spirit.

Acts 8:36-38 we have to believe first and through confession we are given the Holy Spirit.
Acts 10:44-48 The Holy Spirit already fell on the disciples while they were listening to Peter. (No water involved)
Acts 19:1-7 Johns baptism was for repentance and the Holy Spirit was not received nor even heard of yet until the day in the upper room that Jesus was raised up to Heaven and the Holy Spirit fell down on all of them in that room. John baptized with water unto repentance but only as a sing of it.

John 14:16, 17 Jesus is telling his disciples that he will not leave them, but will send the Holy Spirit to comfort them and teach them. Jesus himself did not baptize with water, but with the Spirit and Christian baptism was only instituted after the resurrection when the Lord gave the commission to his apostles to go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature, Matthew 28:19,20.

Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:47,48 are both talking about water, but not for the remission of sins, but and afterward appearance of acknowledgement. We are given the Holy Spirit at the same time of repentance and has nothing to do with water baptism as I have stated that water baptism is an outward appearance to others that you have already confessed and believed and received the Holy Spirit.

This is what Smith's Bible dictionary says:
To be baptized for Christ shows an intention to become a true follower of Christ. John baptized with water unto repentance but as a sign of it, perhaps only a sign of their willingness to enroll themselves among John’s followers. Jesus himself did not baptize with water, but with the Spirit and Christian baptism was only instituted after the resurrection when the Lord gave the commission to his apostles to go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature.

Act 10:47  Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
This verse shows that these men had already received the Holy Spirit, but wanted to be baptized in water also as followers of Christ. So I believe both verses in Acts to be water, but not for the receiving of the Holy Spirit, but an outward appearance to others that they have repented and received the Holy Spirit already.
 
Mat 3:14 But John forbade him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
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« Reply #53 on: November 09, 2009, 02:59:15 PM »

 
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« Reply #54 on: November 09, 2009, 05:49:42 PM »

Debbie_55,

Where did you get the idea that the Greek for "water" in John 3:3-21 is "God's word"?  The Greek word actually means...water.

In Acts 2:38, the purpose of that water baptism is the forgiveness of sins and receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit.  That's what the text says.

Where do you find one person in the New Testament who is saved by asking Jesus into his or her heart?  It's not there.


Why not try my little exercise that I recommended to you in post #48?  It won't take very long since there are not that many passages with "baptism" in them, and it might help you to just read what the passages say and draw conclusions based just on what they say, instead of reading all of that other stuff into them.
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« Reply #54 on: November 09, 2009, 05:49:42 PM »

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« Reply #55 on: November 10, 2009, 02:00:37 PM »

Debbie_55,

Where did you get the idea that the Greek for "water" in John 3:3-21 is "God's word"?  The Greek word actually means...water.

In Acts 2:38, the purpose of that water baptism is the forgiveness of sins and receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit.  That's what the text says.

Where do you find one person in the New Testament who is saved by asking Jesus into his or her heart?  It's not there.


Why not try my little exercise that I recommended to you in post #48?  It won't take very long since there are not that many passages with "baptism" in them, and it might help you to just read what the passages say and draw conclusions based just on what they say, instead of reading all of that other stuff into them.

soterion I took out the part about water meaning word as I have to ask my Pastor how to explain it again and I do not want to cause confusion by this. Per your question about finding any person in the NT who was saved by asking Jesus into their heart is found in John 1:14; 10:9 and Romans 10:9,10 for it is not by water but by confessing and believing. I have pretty much showed in what I posted that water baptism is done only after remission and belief and is an outward appearance to others. I've never seen any river water in the NT that has saved anyone as it was an act done after repentance. I have researched the word baptism through Strong's concordance many times in the past with the scriptures and have never found anywhere where it is the water that saves us. Everything else in my post is pretty much explanatory.
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« Reply #56 on: November 10, 2009, 02:53:33 PM »

soterion I took out the part about water meaning word as I have to ask my Pastor how to explain it again and I do not want to cause confusion by this. Per your question about finding any person in the NT who was saved by asking Jesus into their heart is found in John 1:14; 10:9 and Romans 10:9,10 for it is not by water but by confessing and believing. I have pretty much showed in what I posted that water baptism is done only after remission and belief and is an outward appearance to others. I've never seen any river water in the NT that has saved anyone as it was an act done after repentance. I have researched the word baptism through Strong's concordance many times in the past with the scriptures and have never found anywhere where it is the water that saves us. Everything else in my post is pretty much explanatory.

Debbie_55

What I see from you is a whole lot of dependence on your pastor and some dictionaries to tell you what things mean in the Bible.

My challenge to you about going through and reading the passages and saying what they say will help you to study for yourself.  I guarantee you, if you read them like I am proposing, you will find that they say nothing about baptism being done just to show others your faith.  That belief is an example of reading a belief into the text.

As for John 1:14 and 10:9, those are not examples of people asking Jesus into their heart for salvation as opposed to receiving Christ in repentance and baptism.  Christ commanded baptism after His resurrection, so you will have to go there for any examples that I am asking for.

As for Romans 10:9-10, where does it say in those texts that baptism has nothing to do with salvation?  Just read what the text says, don't read into it something that is not there.
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« Reply #57 on: November 10, 2009, 04:00:31 PM »

The Bible says,

Mar 1:4  John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

Luk 3:3  And he came into all the district around the Jordan, preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.


So even the baptism of John the Baptist was for the forgiveness of sins.  Could baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ be any less?  I don't think so.  So then what is the difference?  Acts 2:38 says what the difference is.  It says it is  "..... for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.


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« Reply #58 on: November 10, 2009, 04:35:29 PM »

soterion I took out the part about water meaning word as I have to ask my Pastor how to explain it again and I do not want to cause confusion by this. Per your question about finding any person in the NT who was saved by asking Jesus into their heart is found in John 1:14; 10:9 and Romans 10:9,10 for it is not by water but by confessing and believing. I have pretty much showed in what I posted that water baptism is done only after remission and belief and is an outward appearance to others. I've never seen any river water in the NT that has saved anyone as it was an act done after repentance. I have researched the word baptism through Strong's concordance many times in the past with the scriptures and have never found anywhere where it is the water that saves us. Everything else in my post is pretty much explanatory.

Debbie_55

What I see from you is a whole lot of dependence on your pastor and some dictionaries to tell you what things mean in the Bible.

My challenge to you about going through and reading the passages and saying what they say will help you to study for yourself.  I guarantee you, if you read them like I am proposing, you will find that they say nothing about baptism being done just to show others your faith.  That belief is an example of reading a belief into the text.

As for John 1:14 and 10:9, those are not examples of people asking Jesus into their heart for salvation as opposed to receiving Christ in repentance and baptism.  Christ commanded baptism after His resurrection, so you will have to go there for any examples that I am asking for.

As for Romans 10:9-10, where does it say in those texts that baptism has nothing to do with salvation?  Just read what the text says, don't read into it something that is not there.


I do not rely on my Pastor or anyone to teach me anything of the word of God as all my teaching comes by the Holy Spirit teaching me all things. God does use others to help us learn, but we need to learn how to discern the spirits that speak according to 1John 4:1-8. The materials I use to study with are the Holy Spirit, KJV Bible, Jerusalem Bible, Strong's concordance, Smith's Bible dictionary. I have never asked anyone to agree with what I post and I would ask that no one agrees with anything I post until they search the scriptures given and allow the Holy Spirit minister truth to you. I do not even go to church, but attend a Tuesday night Bible Study that is lead by the Holy Spirit as we all search the scriptures for what God wants for us to learn. You believe how you want to believe as you are taught and I will do the same as what I have posted is what I believe and no man has showed me any of this as this is what I read and what the Holy Spirit has given me.

Blessings be to you,
Debbie
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« Reply #59 on: November 10, 2009, 06:16:20 PM »

Debbie_55,

If the Holy Spirit is teaching you, then why do you need anything else?

Also, if the Holy Spirit is teaching you, then how could you possibly come to the conclusion that baptism is not what the Bible says it is for?  The Bible was inspired by the Spirit and it says that baptism is for the forgiveness of sins.  Yet, you say that baptism is not for the forgiveness of sins and you claim that is from the Spirit teaching you.

Here is what I see is going on.  Either the Holy Spirit is teaching you contrary to what He says in the Scriptures, or you are mistaken.

Which do you think it is?
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