RB: I'm really only hearing someone who doesn't want to be corrected.
Cally, you should be ashamed of yourself of judging me hastly~I JUST got started and just because you disagree with how I started out you think you know me and have the right to judge my heart, that's unbecoming a Christian. I'm not upset, but you need to slow down and give me an opportunity to post my understanding before you get all upset.
With the completely matter-of-fact and irrational statements that you're making, you're only justifying a way to look at something to make it say whatever you want it to say.
Irrational statement~unfounded attitudes, opinions, and values? So far, Cally, I gave scriptures to support anything that came out of my mouth/mind, etc. Refute the scriptures, or prove that I'm using them incorrectly do not just make statements like this one. I have no desire to make them say whatever I want them to say
, for, before God, who is my witness, I have NO DOG in this fight, I'm here only
to give my understanding, NOTHING MORE. God is my judge, and He will defend his truth and expose those whose heart is to corrupt his word~by saying that I'm NOT saying that you are doing so purposely, just stating a truth which you know to be true.
But it's exceptionally rare, and it's actually not anywhere in the New Testament in contexts not involving a promiscuous woman (even in the situation in which a man commits a "form" of porneia involving his father's wife, who is the promiscuous woman as a subject) and exceptionally rare in the Septuagint, whereas in both cases, it's almost always referring to a woman who "plays the whore."
Cally, you are wrong on this point, and if wrong your whole house of cards fall. I'm not
trying to prove you wrong just
to prove you wrong, you made the OP and just trying to be a friend and labor to give you my understanding and will if you allow me to finish.
Both doctrine and linguistics point unmistakably to absolutely one meaning of the word. .
You are very wrong on that point~under the word fornication
you will find a few sexual sins, and will prove this to be so. God defines the use of the words
he has chosen to be in His word, not Red Baker, or you, or any other person~we find out the use of those e words by comparing scriptures with scriptures, and it not that hard to do.
I wrote a long post that is going to be a bombshell to modern Christians but at the same time, irrefutable, as you are proving by answering it only with matter-of-fact, irrational statements
A word of advice to you:
1st Kings 20:11"And the king of Israel answered and said, Tell him, Let not him that girdeth on his harness boast himself as he that putteth it off."
You would be wise to heed this.
What you want to do (i.e. that same theology I used to assume) is take an extremely obscure definition of the word and explode it into a completely different doctrine than anything that's taught in Scripture.
An extremely obscure definition? Really, it seems very clear to me so far that the word fornication is NOT limited to the degree that you believe that it is. You are just as guilty as those that limit the word fornication to premarital sex by limiting it to ONLY women by saying the primary definition of "porneia" Is, absolutely, "prostitution" by a woman~thus fornication does not involve a man.
understand there are different laws that govern men and women concerning sexual sins in the scriptures, concerning what is sin and what is not sin sexual speaking~ and on most of them you and I would agree~but on what falls under the sin of fornication
there is a wide gap between us.