Christian Interests > Theology Forum

Where Did The Gentiles Come From

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DCR:

--- Quote from: dayspring08 on February 14, 2008, 04:21:40 PM ---
--- Quote from: DCR on February 14, 2008, 04:01:57 PM ---I guess you could say that from the time of Jacob (named Israel) forward... anyone not in that lineage would be considered a Gentile.

--- End quote ---

Big thanks for your reply.  I remember that Jacob took a wife from among the Gentiles.
Maybe the start of them just isn't in the bible.

dayspring (Bonnie)

--- End quote ---

But, see, before Jacob (or arguably more specifically, before Abraham), everyone was a Gentile.  Or, maybe more accurately, there were neither Jews nor Gentiles.  There were just the people who lived back then who were the ancestors of the Jews and Gentiles.

Gentiles, as is conventionally meant by that term, simply means non-Jewish or non-Hebrew.  If we say that Jews are the descendents of Israel/Jacob, then before Jacob, the "Jews" didn't exist. 

Of course, the word "Gentiles" only has meaning in the context of there being "Jews."  Before the "Jews," there was really neither Jew nor Gentile.  There were just people.

Harold:
I like the Abraham version myself, the circumcision of the Jews came from God's covenant with Abraham. They were the children of the promise. But all in all DCR is correct also.

FTL

DCR:

--- Quote from: Harold on February 14, 2008, 04:31:52 PM ---I like the Abraham version myself, the circumcision of the Jews came from God's covenant with Abraham. They were the children of the promise. But all in all DCR is correct also.

FTL

--- End quote ---

Then, we'll say that Abraham is the starting point.  Of course, one difficulty there is the question of Ishmael and his descendents.  They are also descendents of Abraham... yet, I think most would consider them to be "Gentiles."

If you really want to get technical... I believe that "Jews" are actually descended from Judah (or at least the surviving tribes after the captivity)... and the term didn't really come into use until some time around and after the Babylonian Captivity and/or the destruction of the northern kingdom of Israel (in contrast to the southern kingdom of "Judah").

 ::pondering::

Bonnie:

--- Quote from: DCR on February 14, 2008, 04:24:32 PM ---
--- Quote from: dayspring08 on February 14, 2008, 04:21:40 PM ---
--- Quote from: DCR on February 14, 2008, 04:01:57 PM ---I guess you could say that from the time of Jacob (named Israel) forward... anyone not in that lineage would be considered a Gentile.

--- End quote ---

Big thanks for your reply.  I remember that Jacob took a wife from among the Gentiles.
Maybe the start of them just isn't in the bible.

dayspring (Bonnie)

--- End quote ---

But, see, before Jacob (or arguably more specifically, before Abraham), everyone was a Gentile.  Or, maybe more accurately, there were neither Jews nor Gentiles.  There were just the people who lived back then who were the ancestors of the Jews and Gentiles.

Gentiles, as is conventionally meant by that term, simply means non-Jewish or non-Hebrew.  If we say that Jews are the descendents of Israel/Jacob, then before Jacob, the "Jews" didn't exist. 

Of course, the word "Gentiles" only has meaning in the context of there being "Jews."  Before the "Jews," there was really neither Jew nor Gentile.  There were just people.

--- End quote ---

That rings a bell.  God told Abram to get out of the land of his kinsmen and go to a land He would show him. (His father and his kinsmen being evil.)

I never knew why Lot got to come along but I assume he must have been under Abram's care, as in his household.

Bonnie:

--- Quote from: Harold on February 14, 2008, 04:31:52 PM ---I like the Abraham version myself, the circumcision of the Jews came from God's covenant with Abraham. They were the children of the promise. But all in all DCR is correct also.

FTL

True!

--- End quote ---

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