Author Topic: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?  (Read 1104 times)

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Offline dan p

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WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« on: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 15:09:25 »
 In  Matt  28 :19 and  TEACH ,  all  nations ,  BAPTIZING  in the  name  of  the  FATHER , , and of the  SON , and of the  HOLY  SPIRIT and did the  12  apostles do this  mission ?

Then  in  Acts 2:38  Peter  BAPTIZED   in the  NAME of  Jesus  Christ ,  why  the  change ?

 Then  in  Acts 18:8  CRISPUS was  BAPTIZING  without any  FORMULA  at  all !!

Then  in  Acts 19:5bthey  wer  BAPTIZED  in the  name  of the  LORD  Jesus ,  another  change ?

And in  ACTS 19:3  , Paul  meets , For  what  reason then  were  you  BAPTIZED ?  and they  said into  the  BAPTISMA  of  John , so  what  does  that  BAPTISMA  mean ?
'
Then  in  Acts 19: 6  it  says  that  Paul that  baptized  by the  LAYING  ON  HANDS ,  no  WATER  here at  all .

Then there is one in  Mark  16: 14  Jesus  appeared to the 11  disciples and  said to  them  to  PREACH  the  Gospel and  what  GOSPEL   was  that ?

And  verse  16 ,you have  to  be  baptized  to  be  SAVED , again  no  FORMULA and who  will  explain  verse 17 --20m with  SIGNS FOLLOWING  THEM >

dan p
« Last Edit: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 15:17:20 by dan p »

Offline Wycliffes_Shillelagh

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #1 on: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 17:54:15 »
In  Matt  28 :19 and  TEACH ,  all  nations ,  BAPTIZING  in the  name  of  the  FATHER , , and of the  SON , and of the  HOLY  SPIRIT and did the  12  apostles do this  mission ?

Then  in  Acts 2:38  Peter  BAPTIZED   in the  NAME of  Jesus  Christ ,  why  the  change ?
That's not a change.  That's the same name.

Then  in  Acts 18:8  CRISPUS was  BAPTIZING  without any  FORMULA  at  all !!
Just because it isn't recorded, doesn't mean it didn't happen.  Also, the FORMULA is unimportant.  It's about authority, not formula.

Then  in  Acts 19:5bthey  wer  BAPTIZED  in the  name  of the  LORD  Jesus ,  another  change ?
Still the same name.

Then  in  Acts 19: 6  it  says  that  Paul that  baptized  by the  LAYING  ON  HANDS ,  no  WATER  here at  all .
Just because it isn't recorded doesn't mean it didn't happen.

Jarrod
« Last Edit: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 18:19:01 by Wycliffes_Shillelagh »

Offline dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #2 on: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 18:26:48 »
 SO , , Baptize in the  name of the  Father , Son  and  Holy spirit , in the  name of Jesus  Christ , and the  BAPTISMA  of  John , and in the  names of  the  Lord  Jesus are  ALL  THE  SAME , you have to be  KIDDING ,  RIGHT and  sound  more  like a   CALLOW response ?

 dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #3 on: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 19:55:31 »
Quote
In  Matt  28 :19 and  TEACH ,  all  nations ,  BAPTIZING  in the  name  of  the  FATHER , , and of the  SON , and of the  HOLY  SPIRIT and did the  12  apostles do this  mission ?

meaning by the authority of the God head yes clearly seen in  Acts 2:38 Jesus Christ is the God head just as the Father and the Spirit we are taught they are one

Quote
Then  in  Acts 2:38  Peter  BAPTIZED   in the  NAME of  Jesus  Christ ,  why  the  change ?

Acts 2:38
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

 No change Jesus is in the God head see Acts 4:10-12 10 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole.

11 This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner.

12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

Quote
Then  in  Acts 18:8  CRISPUS was  BAPTIZING  without any  FORMULA  at  all !!
Acts 18:8 Crispus, the leader of the synagogue, believed in the Lord with all his household, and many of the Corinthians when they heard were believing and being baptized.

It doesn't say but in context of hearing the gospel of Christ and beliving it woud point squarley to Mark 16:16 wouldn't it And Acts 2:38

Quote
And in  ACTS 19:3  , Paul  meets , For  what  reason then  were  you  BAPTIZED ?  and they  said into  the  BAPTISMA  of  John , so  what  does  that  BAPTISMA  mean ?
'

I do not know what translation you are using but the King James does not use the word baptisma Acts 19 3.4  3 And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" And they said, "Into John's baptism." 4 Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in Him who was coming after him, that is, in Jesus."

The baptism of John was replaced with the baptism in Christ name it is no lobnger in effect and that is the purpose of these scriptures to teach you that fact.

Quote
Then  in  Acts 19:5 they  wer  BAPTIZED  in the  name  of the  LORD  Jesus ,  another  change ?
Acts 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Again a direct reference to Acts 2:38 same as Peter and all the others

Quote
Then  in  Acts 19: 6  it  says  that  Paul that  baptized  by the  LAYING  ON  HANDS ,  no  WATER  here at  all .

Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking with tongues and prophesying.

Read this passage carefully it days nothing of baptism here you inserted that from you own preconceived ideals

Quote
Then there is one in  Mark  16: 14  Jesus  appeared to the 11  disciples and  said to  them  to  PREACH  the  Gospel and  what  GOSPEL   was  that ?
Really my friend if you do not know the answer to this we have serious teaching to do with you

 Maek 16:14 Afterward He appeared to the eleven themselves as they were reclining at the table; and He reproached them for their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they had not believed those who had seen Him after He had risen. 15 And He said to them, "Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.

He is talking of the Gospel of Christ the same one every one is to preach we are all called to preach of Jesus hid death burial and resurrection for it is the power to save elem entry my friend

Quote
And  verse  16 ,you have  to  be  baptized  to  be  SAVED , again  no  FOAnd  verse  16 ,you have  to  be  baptized  to  be  SAVED , again  no  FORMULA and who  will  explain  verse

Mark 16:15,16 15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned

Once again he is talking to the Apostles the same ones he told in Mathew 28 and brought to memory in Acts 2

Quote
17 --20m with  SIGNS FOLLOWING  THEM >RMULA and who  will  explain  verse 17 --20m with  SIGNS FOLLOWING  THEM >

Mark 16:17-2017 These signs will accompany those who have believed: in My name they will cast out demons, they will speak with new tongues; 18 they will pick up serpents, and if they drink any deadly poison, it will not hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover."

19 So then, when the Lord Jesus had spoken to them, He was received up into heaven and sat down at the right hand of God. 20 And they went out and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked with them, and confirmed the word by the signs that followed.

Those verses answer your question for you if you will let them He is talking to the Apostles who were indeed given these signs to confirm that they were teaching the words from God. It was signs to confirm the words of the new testament until such time they had time to get it in writing so all can see.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #3 on: Fri Jul 08, 2022 - 19:55:31 »

Offline RB

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #4 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 04:28:53 »
Quote
WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS?
Dan, you very seldom respond back~you are known for unloading a bushel of questions, and when we take our time to answer them, you are off running to unload another bushel of generally unimportant questions on another topic.
Quote
WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS?
Dan, it's very simple to me at least, obviously not so to you.

It proves to me that formulas have NO saving regenerating powers, for if they did, there would only be one, not two, three, etc. That would be the first answer~but there are other reasons.

The Godhead is ONE, so, the order or names use means very little, as long as the person(s) being baptized believe and has a true biblical reason as to why they are being baptized.

Thirdly, when a person is baptized they are being baptized into Jesus Christ's faith/religion, the gospel  that reveals the true faith in which the person being baptized is confessing to believe and is openly confessing to follow and live by the teachings of this religion/faith of Jesus Christ. This being true, then they MUST be baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus, or words to that effect. I know ministers that say these words when they are baptizing believers: "We now baptized you in the name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Ghost, even in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ". All bases covered!

A couple of thoughts concerning some of your OP post.
Quote from: danp on: Yesterday at 15:09:25
Then  in  Acts 18:8  CRISPUS was  BAPTIZING  without any  FORMULA  at  all !!
Some formula was used, but it was unimportant for the Spirit to reveal it. You just assume no formula was used.
Quote from: danp on: Yesterday at 15:09:25
And in  ACTS 19:3, Paul meets, For what reason than were you  BAPTIZED?  and they said into the  BAPTISMA  of  John, so what does that  BAPTISMA  mean?
John was indeed baptizing for the remission of sins (for, meaning because OF) yet, John's baptism did not have the promise of the Spirit, which from Pentecost onward does.
Quote from: danp on: Yesterday at 15:09:25
Then in  Acts 19: 6  it says that  Paul that baptized by the  LAYING  ON  HANDS,  no  WATER  here at all.
Pure assumption on your part. They were first baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus, and then Paul laid hands on them.
Quote from: THE HOLY GHOST
Acts 19:4-6~Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied."
How can you possibly read these three scriptures and believe they were not baptized first, and afterward, when Paul laid hands on them, the Holy Ghost came on them.
Quote from: danp on: Yesterday at 15:09:25
Then there is one in  Mark  16: 14  Jesus appeared to the 11  disciples and said to them to  PREACH the Gospel and what GOSPEL was that?
I'll answer your question in this manner: "they preach gospel based on their limited knowledge at the saying of those words by Christ to them". Much like men have done since the world began~ the gospel was preached to Abraham, but ONLY to the degree, he was able to bear and understand! Paul had the fullest knowledge of the Gospel of all of the apostles. This is where you are so confused.
Quote from: danp on: Yesterday at 15:09:25
who  will  explain  verse 17 --20m with  SIGNS FOLLOWING  THEM
I would love to do so, in another post later. These signs are STILL for us in our day. You better hope these signs are still here with all the mess-up doctrines you have been following and drinking all of the poison from them.
« Last Edit: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 05:24:41 by RB »

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #4 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 04:28:53 »

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #5 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 11:08:51 »
I so agree that Mark 16:27-20 needs its own thread and would be  interested to see one on this

Offline dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #6 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 12:59:44 »
 And in  Mark  16:16 in the  Greek , SHALL  BE  SAVED / SOZO  is in the Greek  FUTURE  TENSE , PASSIVE  VOICE and in the  INDICATIVE  MOOD and  it  means that  Mark 16:16  has  NOT  happened  YET as well as  verse 18  , unless  I MISSED  IT !!

 And  in  Acts  2:38  the  Greek words SHALL  RECIEVE / LAMBANO  is  also in the  Greek FUTUREM TENSE , MIDDLE  VOICE  and in the  INDICATIVE  MOOD  which  means it is a  FACT,

 In  Eph 4:5  reads  One Lord  , one  FAITH  , and one   BAPTISM ,  BUT  the  Greek  word  in  Eph 4:5  is the  Greek  word  BAPTISMA and  NOT  BAPTISM and you should  check  out  the  Greek  text as the  Greek  BAPTISMA  is  used  22  Times  from  Matt-Eph , so  SHAME  on  you if you  never  do and will  never know if I  am  right or  not , will you ?

dan p
« Last Edit: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 13:16:48 by dan p »

Offline RB

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #7 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 13:05:10 »
And in Mark 16:16 in the Greek.
About as much as we need John 11:35 in Greek.

Offline dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #8 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 13:46:12 »
 And  you  are  VERBOSE  today ??

dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #8 on: Sat Jul 09, 2022 - 13:46:12 »

Offline RB

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #9 on: Sun Jul 10, 2022 - 04:28:00 »
And  you  are  VERBOSE  today ??

dan p
Dan, no more than you. It is you that brings a bushel of questions for us to answer, so what do you want folk to say.... nothing?

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #10 on: Sun Jul 10, 2022 - 08:59:07 »
I so agree that Mark 16:27-20 needs its own thread and would be  interested to see one on this

I would enjoy reading it . Why dont you start one?

Offline dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #11 on: Mon Jul 11, 2022 - 14:50:10 »
And  I  forgot who  said it , that post and never  seem to respond ,and  just  trying to  prove  him  wrong ?

 Som take  your  time and will do  my  best to answer   ALL  REPLY'S >

 dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #12 on: Wed Jul 13, 2022 - 02:51:17 »
SO , , Baptize in the  name of the  Father , Son  and  Holy spirit , in the  name of Jesus  Christ , and the  BAPTISMA  of  John , and in the  names of  the  Lord  Jesus are  ALL  THE  SAME , you have to be  KIDDING ,  RIGHT and  sound  more  like a   CALLOW response ?
If you can't even understand me, what hope to you have of understanding the Bible?

The NAME of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost - what is it?  I'll give you a hint... it doesn't say nameS, just one NAME.

Jarrod

Offline RB

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #13 on: Wed Jul 13, 2022 - 04:49:34 »
If you can't even understand me, what hope to you have of understanding the Bible?

The NAME of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost - what is it?  I'll give you a hint... it doesn't say nameS, just one NAME.

Jarrod
Good point Jarrod.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #14 on: Wed Jul 13, 2022 - 12:34:11 »
Derek Prince (of blessed memory) showed that "in the name of Jesus" was shorthand for "Father Son and Holy Spirit" in his booklet "Burial by Baptism."   He took his text from Acts 19:

1 It happened that while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul passed through the upper country and came to Ephesus, and found some disciples. 2 He said to them, “Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?” And they said to him, “No, we have not even heard whether there is a Holy Spirit.” 3 And he said, “Into what then were you baptized?” And they said, “Into John’s baptism.”

So Dr. Prince asked the question, WHY did Paul immediately ask about their baptism when they said they had not heard of the Holy Spirit? Because to be baptized in the standard Matt 28 formula one would have heard of the Holy Spirit at that time.  If the standard practice was in the name of Jesus ONLY, then his question would have made no sense.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #15 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 04:05:25 »
So Dr. Prince asked the question, WHY did Paul immediately ask about their baptism when they said they had not heard of the Holy Spirit? Because to be baptized in the standard Matt 28 formula one would have heard of the Holy Spirit at that time.  If the standard practice was in the name of Jesus ONLY, then his question would have made no sense.
I do not believe this is correct Dave.

While I agree John did not use that formula of Matthew 28, and truly not sure he even used one, other than telling the people that their baptism was preparing them to meet their soon coming Messiah, and by being prepared they had to put away their sins, and baptism was a picture of that to them.

The difference between John's baptism and NT baptism is that post-Pentecost, the promised of the Spirit comes with baptism, not so with John's baptism.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #16 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 06:04:21 »
The difference between John's baptism and NT baptism is that post-Pentecost, the promised of the Spirit comes with baptism, not so with John's baptism.
John's baptism was a standard Jewish mikvah service.  The only thing said at that was: "Blessed are You O Lord our God who sanctifies us by the commandments; and has commanded us concerning immersion." 

No mention of a Holy Spirit.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #17 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 06:42:00 »
The standard Jewish mikvah service was immersion for the forgiveness of sin?  I have never heard that before.  Also, I haven't heard that the Jewish mikvah was performed on someone by another; rather the immersion was simply accomplished by the person himself; he entered the water and then knelt or whatever necessary to be completely immersed under the water.
« Last Edit: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 06:46:05 by 4WD »

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #18 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 10:11:02 »
The standard Jewish mikvah service was immersion for the forgiveness of sin?  I have never heard that before. 
It was for any number of things.  It started out for just ceremonial uncleanness.  But it expanded over the years and by the 2nd temple period (NT times) it included sins as well.

Quote
Also, I haven't heard that the Jewish mikvah was performed on someone by another; rather the immersion was simply accomplished by the person himself; he entered the water and then knelt or whatever necessary to be completely immersed under the water.
Again, it started off that way.  But by NT times it involved someone else to watch and ensure complete submersion.  And the Early Rabbis added the blessing to it.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #19 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 15:14:58 »
 Just by  checking  the  Greek  text of  Matt 28:19  , the  Greek word  NAME / ONOMA  is in  the  DATIVE  CASE and  is  SINGULAR .

 It is the  same  in Acts 2:38 , IN  the  NAME / ONOMA  is  also  SINGULAR and in the  DATIVE  CASE .

 Then  in  Acts 19:5 where the  Greek  words  are  LORD  is also  SINGULAR as  is  Jesus , SINGULAR .

 You do  not  EXCEPT  YOUR  Proof !!

 dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #20 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 20:01:16 »
You do  not  EXCEPT  YOUR  Proof !!
Huh?  Fix your English, I can't understand you.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #21 on: Thu Jul 14, 2022 - 20:26:56 »
Dan, you must be talking about ACCEPT not EXCEPT. Those type things make it like you are speaking in an unknown tongue.  NO need to get all snooty about the case and tenses of the Greek or Hebrew words. Just become reasonably conversant in English first.

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #22 on: Fri Jul 15, 2022 - 15:03:08 »
And  the Greek  words  have  tense , pronouns ,  verbs and  nouns ,  adjectives  and  CASES ,  just as  English has , and is more  accurate , because  it is  GOD  inspired .

 The  reason that there many  translation of the  bible , because those  translator can  not  all  agree what some  words  mean .

 If you would google  BLUE  LETTER  BIBLE  , anyone  can  check all  the  major translation and  those  translator DO  NOT  ALL  AGREE , and if when you see any  word in  ITALIC  in your  bible , it means that  they did not  agree to it's  translation  .

 dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #23 on: Fri Jul 15, 2022 - 17:58:11 »
...when you see any  word in  ITALIC  in your  bible , it means that  they did not  agree to it's  translation  .
This is wrong.  Italics indicates that a word does not appear in the original Greek/Hebrew, and the word was supplied by the translator.  Example:

Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils.

Jarrod

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #24 on: Fri Jul 15, 2022 - 18:03:56 »
Dan I don’t challenge your Greek or Hebrew, just your English. I think if you communicated English better you would engage more rewarding dialogue. And I DO use Blue Letter Bible site. Or in Dan-ese Use I, Bible Blue Letter. If you EXCEPT that, you disagree not agree.
« Last Edit: Sat Jul 16, 2022 - 06:56:56 by Jaime »

Offline dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #25 on: Sat Jul 16, 2022 - 13:33:20 »
If  you  use  BLUE  LETTER  BIBLE , then you will see  Tenses , cases , voices and  pronouns and  moods .

 There is  also  BIBLE  HUB  and  I also use a INTERLINER bible that  has  HEBREW  , GREEK  and its  interpretation in  English , which is and  eye  opener and  worth  the  money to  buy and brought a Greek for  the  rest of us , by MOUNCE also  worth  the  money  to  buy and you will  become dangerous  and  good and  have  a  better  GRASP  of  what  words really  mean .

dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #26 on: Sat Jul 16, 2022 - 15:40:57 »
We here need a Dan-Linear version for your broken English. As I told you before I have no issue with your Greek or Hebrew.

Offline dan p

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #27 on: Thu Sep 08, 2022 - 14:00:44 »
This  is  what  the  Greek  says about  Matt  28:19 !!

# 1 FATHER / PATER is  a noun in the  Genitive  case is  the  case  of  Description  and  is   SINGULAR .

 # 2 The  next Greek  words  are OF THE  /HO  and the  Greek  word  THE/HO  is  a  definite article and THE  is  pointing  to  only the Greek  word  SON and  is  also  SINGULAR .

 #3 The  next  Greek  words is  SON / YHIOS  and  is  also  in the   GENATIVE  CASE  and  also  SINGULAR , 

 #4 These  Greek  words OF  THE / Definite ARTICLE   is the  same  as  number 2 .

#5 The  Greek  word  HOLY / HAGIOS  is  and  adjective  and is  also  in  the  GENATIVE  CASE and  is  also  SINGULAR ..

#6 The  Greek  word  SPIRIT / PUEUMA  a  noun  is also  in  the  GENATIVE  CASE  and  is  also  SINGULAR

 The Greek  words  FATHER and  SON  and  HOLY  SPIRIT  are all  SINGULAR  AND  NOT  PLURAL ,  but  SINGULAR and  separate and have  different ministries .

dan p

Offline DaveW

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Re: WHY ARE THERE DIFFERENT FORMULAS ?
« Reply #28 on: Fri Sep 09, 2022 - 09:27:40 »
In  Matt  28 :19 and  TEACH ,  all  nations ,  BAPTIZING  in the  name  of  the  FATHER , , and of the  SON , and of the  HOLY  SPIRIT and did the  12  apostles do this  mission ?
Then  in  Acts 2:38  Peter  BAPTIZED   in the  NAME of  Jesus  Christ ,  why  the  change ?
 Then  in  Acts 18:8  CRISPUS was  BAPTIZING  without any  FORMULA  at  all !!
Then  in  Acts 19:5bthey  wer  BAPTIZED  in the  name  of the  LORD  Jesus ,  another  change ?
And in  ACTS 19:3  , Paul  meets , For  what  reason then  were  you  BAPTIZED ?  and they  said into  the  BAPTISMA  of  John , so  what  does  that  BAPTISMA  mean ?
Then  in  Acts 19: 6  it  says  that  Paul that  baptized  by the  LAYING  ON  HANDS ,  no  WATER  here at  all .
Then there is one in  Mark  16: 14  Jesus  appeared to the 11  disciples and  said to  them  to  PREACH  the  Gospel and  what  GOSPEL   was  that ?
And  verse  16 ,you have  to  be  baptized  to  be  SAVED , again  no  FORMULA and who  will  explain  verse 17 --20m with  SIGNS FOLLOWING  THEM >
Dan -  you are looking at this thru the wrong set of eyes.  It seems there was no dispute in the first century when all of those passages were written.  It was just that different people wrote it down differently.

Ask yourself what a first century Jew from the Middle East would understand from all of that?