In Romans 5:18 Paul says, Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. When you read that verse, do you think the "all men" in the first part of that sentence means the same thing as the "all men" in the second part of that sentence?
How convenient to avoid verse 17 and 19 which state
17 For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive
God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ!
19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners
( note:it says the many) , so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous
.(rinse and repeat)
How convenient to avoid stating that original texts would have had this most likely as one big run on sentence with out the paragraphs, punctuation, and/or capitalization
SO... based on that... YES... a resounding yes to believing VS 18. As it is one book and one chapter, all inclusive.
What I meant, and you well know it, is that those of you who do this would come back and say that in addition to Romans you need to read the same in every book that has the same... even though they were not written at the same time, to draw conclusions that whatever oneverse says somewhere, it is meant to be the same throughout..... and I submit that different times can offer different things.