ROM 5:13 For until the LAW , sin was in the world , BUT SIN , is not being IMPUTED , there being NO LAW .
#1 But death reigned from Adam until Moses even over the ones NOT having sinned after the likeness of Adam , who is a PATTERN of the coming one ,
#2 How then was Adam then saved IF there was no IMPUTED SIN ?
#3 If there is no IMPUTED sin , how will those who DIED , from Adam to Moses be JUDGED ?
#4 Does ATONEMENT fit in here and applied to Adam ?
dan p
dan p:
The scriptures are explicitly clear that no one was officially saved until the sacrifice and shedding of blood of our Lord and Messiah Jesus. His, of course, was the final sacrifice.
The Hebrews letter, throughout, points directly to this fact. The blood of animals atoned for sins but could not abolish them. Hebrews 2:17 addresses this very thing. The answer to your number 4 question is Yes.
Buff
: dan p Tue Jan 17, 2023 - 14:56:21
#2 How then was Adam then saved IF there was no IMPUTED SIN ?
The church I attended in highschool had an easy answer for that: He was NOT saved. They believed
everyone who died before the crucifixion was already burning in hell.
Acts 4:12
And there is salvation in no one else; for there is
no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved."
Since no one knew the name of Jesus, they were all doomed.
Ah - the joys of proof-texting.
Your thoughts on Acts 2:36 they all knew his name !
In Acts 2:38 Peter preached to Israel to REPENT and be BAPTIZED in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of SINS and you will receive the gift of then Holy Spirit .
And the gospels of Matt , Luke , Mark and John and Acts are OT GROUND .
dan p
: dan p Tue Jan 17, 2023 - 14:56:21
#1 But death reigned from Adam until Moses even over the ones NOT having sinned after the likeness of Adam , who is a PATTERN of the coming one ,
#2 How then was Adam then saved IF there was no IMPUTED SIN ?
The answer is contained within your question.
Adam is a "likeness," and "a pattern of the coming one."
i.e. not a real person
.
: dan p Tue Jan 17, 2023 - 14:56:21ROM 5:13 For until the LAW , sin was in the world , BUT SIN , is not being IMPUTED , there being NO LAW
In other words: where there is no law to break, there are no law breakers. However, that doesn't mean folks lacking law and order aren't sinners. For example:
• Gen 13:13 . . But the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before The Lord exceedingly.
Now technically The Lord couldn't charge the men of Sodom with breaking His laws because at the time none were officially codified. However, there's the matter of conscience. In other words, those people had a sense of right and wrong (Gen 3:22) so God slammed people on their own basis where His were unavailable. (Rom 2:14-15): dan p Tue Jan 17, 2023 - 14:56:21How then was Adam then saved IF there was no IMPUTED SIN ?
Adam was aware that a savior was on the way (Gen 3:15) and his son Abel was a prophet. (Luke 11:50-51)
_
There is law and then there is the law of Moses. The fact that the law of Moses did not exist does not mean there was no law.
Rom 2:14 For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, [of Moses] by nature do what the law [of Moses] requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law [of Moses].
A law is basically that system of rules and regulations in the society that one lives by. As such, there is virtually never a situation where there is no law. The only such situation exists when the individual is incapable of recognizing and understanding the existence of the rules and regulations to live by. That occurs in the very young and the mentally incapacitated.
There was and is a law even in such places where Moses has never been heard of, let alone God of the Bible. Even in the realm of the murderous Genghis Kahn there was law. It was not the law of Moses, but it was law.
Thus, Rom 5:12 Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned-- And that because there was law even if it was not the law of Moses.