WHY WAS JESUS WATER BAPTIZED ?

[Rella]

John's baptism was for repentance and forgiveness of sin. Salvation wasn't the intent at that point.

It always seemed to me that Jesus volunteered for the baptism to set an example for his own ministry, he was sinless but not above sinners, and to fulfill God's plan of revealing to John the new messiah.

Thanks Alan,

I agree... plus the Holy Spirit descended upon Him that day so no better way to kick off His ministry then by example.

[Wycliffes_Shillelagh]

Thanks for the thoughts but begs does it really conflict?

Yes, the timing of "to day" creates a conflict.

If Jesus was begotten at His baptism, then what are we to make of His physical birth?

[Rella]

Yes, the timing of "to day" creates a conflict.

If Jesus was begotten at His baptism, then what are we to make of His physical birth?

Not so fast.

If the definition I posted is even within the realm of reason it says

https://www.bibleversestudy.com/acts/acts13-begotten-meaning.htm

Quote
What is the meaning of "have begotten" (Acts 13:33)?
γεγεννηκα (gegenneka), the original Greek word translated "have begotten," is typically understood to mean "having fathered" or "having brought forth from the womb," but it literally means just "having brought forth" or "having caused to arise,"

Heb 5:5

KJV
So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.

NASB95
So also Christ did not glorify Himself so as to become a high priest, but He who said to Him, "YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU";

Interlinear says
! today have begotten You

Peshitta
So neither did The Messiah glorify his soul to be High Priest, but he who said to him, "You are my Son; today I have begotten you",

4 widely separated translation saying the same basic thing.

I see no problem if you read this as if God the Father was saying

You are my son, today I have "having brought forth" or "having caused to arise,  IOW today I have brought (You) forth OR today I have caused (You) to arise.

[Wycliffes_Shillelagh]

I see no problem if you read this as if God the Father was saying

You are my son, today I have "having brought forth" or "having caused to arise,  IOW today I have brought (You) forth OR today I have caused (You) to arise.

Whoever edited Luke thought it was a problem.  I guess they didn't read it the way you do.

[armchairscholar]

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John the baptizer's mission had a special purpose.

● Mal 4:5-6 . . See, I will send you the prophet Elijah before that great and dreadful day of The Lord comes. He will turn the hearts of the fathers to their children, and the hearts of the children to their fathers; or else I will come and strike the land with a curse.

John wasn't the actual Elijah in person, but he was close enough.

● Matt 11:14 . . And if you are willing to accept it, he is the Elijah who was to come.

Now according to Luke 2:51, Jesus was a good son; so he didn't need correction in that area. His reason for submitting to John's baptism was different. He submitted to John's services simply because, at that particular time in Israel's history, it was the right thing to do.

● Matt 21:25 . . John's baptism-- where did it come from? Was it from heaven, or from men?

Well from Heaven of course, and I'm pretty sure that's at least one of the reasons why Jesus got in on it.

● Matt 3:13-15 . .Then Jesus came from Galilee to John at the Jordan to be baptized by him. John tried to prevent him, saying: I need to be baptized by you, and yet you are coming to me? Jesus said to him in reply: Allow it now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.
_

Jesus himself was sinless and did not need baptism for forgiveness, but his baptism served several important purposes:

1. To fulfill righteousness and identify with humanity: By submitting to baptism, Jesus aligned himself with sinful humanity and "fulfilled all righteousness" as he stated to John (Matthew 3:15). (Waheeb, 2019)

2. As a symbolic anointing and commissioning: The baptism, accompanied by the descent of the Holy Spirit and the Father's voice from heaven, served as a public anointing of Jesus for his messianic mission. (Waheeb, 2019)

3. To set an example for his followers: Jesus' baptism established a model for Christian baptism as an initiation into the faith community. (Baumgarten, 2014)

4. To prefigure his death and resurrection: Some early Christian thinkers saw Jesus' descent into the waters as foreshadowing his death, and his rising from the water as anticipating his resurrection. (Richer, 2000)

5. To sanctify the waters: In some theological traditions, Jesus' baptism is seen as blessing and sanctifying the waters themselves for use in Christian baptism. (Ferguson, 2012)

[Jaime]

Question on the subject.

If Jesus was the son of man AND the Son of God could he have been begotten of each at different times? One at his "natural"birth and one at his "spiritual" birth?

[Wycliffes_Shillelagh]

Question on the subject.

If Jesus was the son of man AND the Son of God could he have been begotten of each at different times? One at his "natural"birth and one at his "spiritual" birth?

That's a great question.  I don't have an answer that I can assert with confidence.

I would lean towards yes.  In the original Psalm that contains the quote (Psalm 2), it is applied to David.  If David can be "begotten" at the time he took the throne, then it stands to reason the same might apply to Jesus.

[4WD]

Question on the subject.

If Jesus was the son of man AND the Son of God could he have been begotten of each at different times? One at his "natural"birth and one at his "spiritual" birth?

The giving of the empowering Holy Spirit as happened with Jesus at his baptism is not a "spiritual" birth.  We are never told that Jesus was ever given the gift of the indwelling Holy Spirit.

I personally believe that Jesus' own spirit that that He had as a man is one and the same Spirit that was His pre-incarnate being. That is why in Hebrews 2 we read, 14 Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same,.....

The "He Himself" that took on the flesh and blood of the human being was the pre-incarnate Spirit who became a human being through the physical birth to Mary.

At least that is a part of my explanation of just how it was that Jesus was fully human and fully God.

[Jaime]

I believe he was a perfectly empowered Holy Spirit filled man, that did miracles by the power of that Holy Spirit since he chastised  the pharisees not to commit the unpardonanle sin of blasphemy of the Holy Spirit when they accused him of doing his miracles by the power of Beelzebub. I believe be left his God-ness when he left heaven and came to earth. OR somehow switched off his God-ness to fully live AND die as a man so he could be our perfect advocate and high priest in his eternal position in beaven. He demonstrated the Holy Spirit potential TO us as a human who fully appropriated the Holy Spirit in his humanity. 

[4WD]

I believe he was a perfectly empowered Holy Spirit filled man, that did miracles by the power of that Holy Spirit since he chastised  the pharisees not to commit the unpardonanle sin of blasphemy of the Holy Spirit when they accused him of doing his miracles by the power of Beelzebub. I believe be left his God-ness when he left heaven and came to earth. OR somehow switched off his God-ness to fully live AND die as a man so he could be our perfect advocate and high priest in his eternal position in beaven. He demonstrated the Holy Spirit potential TO us as a human who fully appropriated the Holy Spirit in his humanity. 

So you don't believe He was fully God when he lived here as a human being? Interesting.

What did He mean then when He said, "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30)?

[Jaime]

I'm not sure what I believe. Which is why I put the caveat of him having a way to switch off his God-ness. Example, it wouldn't be remotely incredible for God to endure the pain of the cross, BUT As a holy spirit empowered human, yes, It would be incredinly surprising. One that took off his God "suit" and left it in heaven willingly and lived sinless as a human, admittedly I don't understand it. As a super human with God abilities, how was he tempted or tested as we are without a toggle somehow on his God powers? I am sure my deficit in understanding is MY issue not Jesus'. I fully accept Jesus as the third person in the eternal Trinity aside from his stint as a human. In that sense He and the Father ARE one, without doubt. Yet I still don't understand it. Did the Bible intend to communicate that he was a superhuman, i don't believe so, but since I lack understanding of this, I am certainly open to being wrong. In being wrong, I would still be deficient in understanding this.

[Hobie]

It  reads  in Matt  3:15  that  jOHN  THE  BAPTIZED ,  Baptized  Jesus .

In  Acts  2:38  it  says to  Israel  , Repent and  let each  of  you be  BAPTIZED in  the  name  of Jesus Christ for  the   remission of  sins and  you  will the  GIFT  of  the  Holy  Spirit .

 #1 Why  did  Jesus  sunmit  to  water  baptism .

 #2  What  SINS  did  Jesus  commit ?

 #3 And  verse  15 says ,  suffer  it  so to  FULFILL ALL  RIGHTEOUSNESS ,  what  does  that  mean ??

 What  say  you ??

dan p

To fulfill all and set an example for us, which He did. Its that simple...

[NyawehNyoh]

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Waheeb, Baumgarten, Richer, & Ferguson

On June 28, 2024, The US Supreme Court overturned a long held opinion so-called the Chevron Deference Doctrine, which was basically an argument from authority, i.e. a logical fallacy which supposes that someone's position, or their credential, makes their views more important and/or more likely to be correct than the views of lesser folks.

In a nutshell; just because someone is high up on the "expert" totem pole does not eo ipso make them right. Caveat Lector.
_

[dan p]

Dan P contends the gentiles got a separate and different gospel. i don't  think so. There is only one gospel.

Eph  4:5 says    ONE //  HEIS ,  means   One ,  One  Faith ,

ONE //  HEIS ,  BAPTISMA !!

So   what   does    BAPTISMA  then  means ??

The   Greek   word BAPTISMA   is used 22 times   fro  Matt 3:7 through

1  Peter   3:  21 !!

Check   the   Greek  text and   SEE  !!

dan p

[Wycliffes_Shillelagh]

Eph  4:5 says    ONE //  HEIS ,  means   One ,  One  Faith ,

ONE //  HEIS ,  BAPTISMA !!

So   what   does    BAPTISMA  then  means ??

There ya go... you found a verse that directly contradicts your "two gospels" idea.

If you were to expand on the context (instead of dissecting the verse one word at a time), I think you'll find that the larger context of the chapter and book ALSO directly contradicts the "two gospels" nonsense.

1 Corinthians 1:11-13 KJV 11 For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them [which are of the house] of Chloe, that there are contentions among you. 12 Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ. 13 Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?

If you find that you are a Paulian rather than a Christian, then it may be time to repent.