Hi to all and in Jer 3:14 it says that Christ is MARRIED to Israel !!In Jeremiah 3, there are two brides - Judah and Israel. So, within the context you're talking about, the answer is yes.
In verse 8 Christ gives Israel a BILL OF DIVORCE and means that Christ has and EX-WIFE !!
Yet many say that the BODY OF CHRIST is the BRIDE OF CHRIST !
Can Christ have 2 BRIDES ??
What say you ??
And by that, you just shown yourself to follow your sense of (human) reason and rationality over the truth of scriptures. Which in this case, clearly runs against the truth that God's election is according by grace and not of works.Nothing that I have said contradicts Romans 9:5.
Romans 9:5 Even so then, at this present time there is a remnant according to the election of grace. 6 And if by grace, then it is no longer of works; otherwise grace is no longer grace. But if it is of works, it is no longer grace; otherwise work is no longer work.