Wrong? Based upon man's fairness?
First of all for the one who believes in God of the Bible, the only fairness is the fairness that comes from God.
Actually, it shows the wisdom of God in making the first Adam the head/representative of his posterity that shall come forth of his lions.
Actually, there is not one word in the bible about God making Adam the head/representative of anyone. That is simply one more of your Augustinian/Calvinist constructs created to align with your false doctrines.
Do you believe you have a better option, a more righteous one?
I most certainly do. The one presented by God Himself. The one where God doesn't condemn the entire company of humanity for the sins of one man. Not only does God not condemn all humanity for what Adam did, God does not condemn even one other human being for what Adam did. There was/is no need for God to do that. Why? Because, "... death spread to all men because all sinned-- " (Rom 5:13).
If you have a more righteous plan, then let me hear it.
You have heard it again and again, and you have read it from God's word, but it doesn't align with your TULIP scenario and therefore you reject it.
Would you rather be put under a covenant works WITH your sinful nature in order to inherit eternal life? .
Why would I want that? I am not in fact under a covenant works. to inherit eternal life.
He was created after God's image, which image consisted of wisdom, righteousness, knowledge! An image that God did not give to the rest of His creation. Besides, I KNOW what this image consisted of by understanding what the NEW MAN in Christ has been created in....
Interesting. As stated by God, Adam was created without a knowledge of good and evil. He obtained that after disobeying God and eating of the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil. You say that the God did not give to the rest of His creation the image that He gave to Adam. Where, exactly, did you read that? Genesis 5:1-3 tells that God created Adam in His own likeness. Nothing there says anything about Adam not having that image. It then says Adam's son was born in Adam's likeness, after his image. Again, there is nothing there that would even suggest that the Adam's likeness was any other than the likeness in which God created him.
He knew, but allowed his wife to deceive him~Satan deceived Eve, and Adam allow his wife to lead him to disobey God. He sinned with his eyes open, unlike his wife, who was beguiled by the serpent.
There are several red flags to be cast down with that statement. He knew but she didn't? Where do you get that? She was deceived by Satan, but he was only deceived by Eve. You say that like there is a difference. What? His sin was somehow not as bad as hers? His eyes were open but hers were what? close? Where in the world to you get such stuff?
They only had ONE commandment, which was no to eat of the tree in the midst of the beautiful garden. Many of the ten commandments did not even applied to them before their fall into sin.
First, you have no idea at all what other commandments were given to Adam and Eve. And second, it doesn't really matter if they did or didn't; the simple truth is they disobeyed the one identified in Genesis 3. Whether there were others is moot. It only takes one.
First, it clearly said: No, 4WD, IN ADAM all die~meaning when Adam sin, all his posterity DIE, spiritual,
Again, you are making stuff up. All the expression, in Adam, which by the way occurs only once and that is in 1 Corinthians 15:22, is simply a signifying of being human. That verse is, "For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive".
"In Adam" is the physical while "in Christ" is the spiritual. As a physical being we will die, as a spiritual being we will live. There is absolutely nothing in that verse that speaks about Adam's sin having anything to do with our dying.
In getting ready to exegete on Romans 5:12, you said,
Bear with me, it's going to be detail so, there can be no misunderstanding of the truth in this scripture.
You then proceeded to eisegete the absolutely worst bit of Calvinist doctrine I have yet seen.
Just for reference, Romans 5:12 says, (ESV) Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned--
The first Adam separated himself and us from God
That is pure RB talk. That is simply not in that verse anywhere. And all your "explanation" goes south at that point. while the sin of Adam did indeed cause some sort of a separation between Adam and God, it was not one of complete separation as you would indicate. God continued to be able to converse with Adam and Adam understood quite well what God was saying. There was no Total Depravity established in Adam by his sinning. But even more, nothing about that one way or the other is discussed in that verse. It says that "sin came into the world". Here "the world" (as in John 3:16) is the world of mankind, the physical sphere of human beings; sin had already entered world of angels through the sin of Satan (1 Joh 3:8). Paul adds here that death entered through sin. As I have repeated here so often, the death that entered through sin was not physical death, but rather spiritual death. I think it is well accepted that the physical death of the entire animal kingdom existed as a part of creation. So clearly physical death was not introduced as a result of Adam's sin. Moreover, from Genesis 3:22, it is self-evident that Adam's physical death was only an indirect result of his sin; Adam's physical death was the direct result of being ejected from the Garden and no longer had access to the fruit of the tree of life which had the property of sustaining physical life, i.e., the putting off of physical death. Thus what entered the world as a result of Adam's sin was spiritual death; and it entered by way of Adam's spiritual death, his estrangement from God.
Next, Paul says, so death spread to all men. Why or how? Paul says, "death spread to all men because all sinned-- "
. There is no ambiguity in what Paul says. It is because all sinned. It is not because Adam sinned; rather it is because all men sinned.
As by one man~Here is the doctrine of representation~one man representing many men in the sight of God. Here is the doctrine of imputation~the act(s) of one man being applied legally/judicially to others. This doctrine is also called ancestral sin and federal headship of Adam and other manmade names.
There is no such thing there. There is no representation even suggested there. It is a simple statement that sin was first introduced to this earthly world by the one man, Adam. And with that sin, Adam, died spiritually. The manner in which everyone subsequent to Adam died spiritually was through their sins, i.e., "death spread to all men because all men sinned"
. They did it to themselves. They didn't die through any representation. They died through their own sinning.
Use of “as … so” means, “As this occurred in this specified manner … so this event also occurred that same specified way.” This powerful form of grammar is found in verses 12,15,16,18, and 19.
That is a true statement. It is really too bad that you have not really understood that powerful form of grammar. What exactly does the "so...as" here tell us. It says, just as Adam died spiritually because of his sin, so also all men die spiritually because they all sin.
And death by sin~Death is the necessary consequence and result of sin before a holy and righteous God (6:23). God told Adam very plainly for all to read that he would die if he ate the fruit (Genesis 2:17). Sin and death (Gen 2:17) were brought into the human world by Adam’s sin (5:14; 6:23). Spiritual death came immediately (Genesis 2:17; Ephesains 2:1), physical death came 930 years later for Adam (Genesis 3:19; 5:5; Hebrews 9:27), and eternal death awaits final execution (Revelation 20:6,14).
But again, physical death came, not the direct result of Adam's sin, but as a result of being ejected from the Garden and no longer haveing access to the life preserving fruit of the Tree of Life.
A judicial sentence was passed ~death was assigned to all men as the just and holy punishment, even to infants and ignorant (5:14), for Adam’s singular sin in the Garden of Eden.
You keep talking about physical life and death. Nothing in the whole of Romans 5 has anything to do with our physical life and death. The only physical death that is mentioned is Christ's physical death on the cross.
And the entire rest of your comments there concerning Romans 5 is nothing more than an Augustinian/Calvinistic atrocious attempt to promote Original Sin and the even worse Total Depravity. You presented above the "powerful form of grammar" of the "so...as" construction. Then in all of your discourse concerning the verses from 12 on, you ignored the truth presented by it.
The point of the "so...as" construction is in the truth presented in the "as" part of the statement. In verse 18: (KJV) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. ,
the first thing we need to see is that we have "as .....upon all men....; even so ....upon all men...."
. Thus, whatever the "as" refers to, it is upon all men, and by the powerful form of grammar then whatever the "so" refers, it is also upon all men.
Having established the absolute consistency demanded by the "as...so" construction, we next look to see what it is that is confirmed for all men. In verse 18 the "as" part seems clearly to indicate that by Adam's offense brought condemnation to all men. How? You and many others have concluded that condemnation comes upon all men at birth. You call it Original Sin. I agree. So then what should we conclude came upon all men by Jesus' righteousness? Paul said justification of life. How? Well to be consistent, one must conclude that justification of life comes upon all men at birth. I call that Original Grace.
So what does that mean? What is it that Paul is trying to tell us? What Paul is saying there that the effects upon all men of what Jesus did negated entirely the effects upon all men of what Adam did.
It is important to note that none of the discussion in verses 12 through 19 have anything to do with what we have done. None of it speaks to the effects of our sins. Paul takes up that discussion immediately following in Chapter 6.
That entire passage speaks only to the comparison of the effects of Adam's disobedience and the effects of Jesus' obedience. The fact is that what Jesus did wiped out completely the effects of what Adam did. Only in that way could Paul say, speaking of Adam's disobedience and Jesus' obedience that "where sin abounded, grace did much more abound"[ (v.19)/i]