You said "God is mind and spirit". This is evidently an erroneous understanding of the nature of God and a false knowledge of God as revealed in the Bible. While scriptures say that God is spirit, scriptures does not say that God is mind.My Response: Romans 8:27
And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit
, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.
And be renewed in the spirit of your mind
1 Tim 1:17
Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible,
the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. AmienCol 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God
Mind and spirit are two invisible aspects
of God and man that are different but are inseparable. John 4:24 God is a Spirit
: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.John 6:63 (BLB)
It is the Spirit giving life; the flesh profits nothing. The words
that I speak to you are spirit
and they are life.Luke 8:11
(YLT) And this is the simile: The seed is the word
the words spoken through Christ are seeds from the Word or spirit of God. The Word of God is from the thoughts or mind of God.Lev 24:12
And they put him in ward, that the mind of the LORD
(Yahweh) might be shewed them.Numbers 24:13
If Balak would give me his house full of silver and gold, I cannot go beyond the commandment of the LORD, to do either good or bad of mine own mind (but the LORD’s mind);
but what the LORD saith, that will I speak?: Comment
: God’s mind is in heaven
. His spirit is omnipresent.
God is mind and spirit. Where his spirit is, his mind is in it. Where his mind is, his spirit is in it. God is not our heavenly Father and his son Christ.
In the beginning was the Word (spirit),
and the Word was with God (mind and spirit),
and the Word (spirit) was God.Michael wrote: You said "John 1:1 does not matter. There are no gender pronouns here. " Of course it matters as it introduces the "Word" who is spoken of in the next verses.
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John here tells us of this truth about the "Word": 1. was in the beginning, 2. was with God, 3. was God.
You said "There is no gender in many versions of John 1:2." Here are the Greek text transliterations for you to consider.
Nestle Greek New Testament 1904 : Houtos en en arche pros ton Theon
Westcott and Hort 1881 : Houtos en en arche pros ton theon
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:2 Byzantine/Majority Text (2000): outos En en archE pros ton theon
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:2 Stephens Textus Receptus (1550) : outos En en archE pros ton theon
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:2 Scrivener's Textus Receptus (1894) : outos En en archE pros ton theon
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:2 Westcott/Hort : outos En en archE pros ton theon
3778 [e] Houtos Οὗτος He DPro-NMS
Part of Speech: Demonstrative Pronoun
You said "The Word in John 1:1-2 is the spirit of God." Read what John have to say which identifies the "Word" that he introduced in John 1:1-3.
Definition: a word, speech, divine utterance, analogy.
: a word (as embodying an idea), a statement, a speech
another* (8), any (1), because* (7), deeds* (1), just (1), just* (1), once* (1), one (11), one* (6), other (2), others* (2), same (2), since* (3), so (1), some (7), some* (8), someone (1), such (1), there (1), these (6), these things (3), thing (1), things (4), third (1), this (22), this is what (1), those whom (1), until* (1), what (101), what* (2), whatever (5), whatever* (28), when (9), when* (3), where (1), where* (2), which (404), while* (3), who (158), whoever (4), whoever* (51), whom (218), whomever* (6), whose (38), why* (3).Comment:
There is no definition that states that the logos is a person.Second
I had given you parallels between the “word” and ‘spirit
” of God in an above post.Third
From the author:
“In 1 John 1:1
John used the neuter gender
word (ho – “that which”) four times rather than (he – “who”) which is a masculine word. John Dobbs says that the four relative pronouns are a literary device to attract the attention of the readers. The neuter relative pronoun noun is used instead of the masculine…”Fourthhttps://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/1ch/17/3/p0/t_conc_355003
Debar in the OT has the same meaning as logos in the NT
1. speech, word, speaking, thing
2. saying, utterance
3. word, words
4. business, occupation, acts, matter, case, something, manner (by extension)http://thelivingtruthfellowship.org/jtltf/bible-teachings/articles-by-topc/what-about-the-trinity/376-john-1-1The Greek and Hebrew languages assign genders to nouns
, just as do Spanish, French, German and many other languages. Thus, every noun in Greek and Hebrew is assigned a gender. In Greek, there are masculine, feminine and neuter nouns, while in Hebrew there are only masculine and feminine. The origin of the gender is ancient, and does not seem to follow a specific pattern
. In Hebrew, for example, altar (mizbeach) is masculine, while the menorah is feminine. An arrow (chets) and an ax (qardom) are masculine, while a sword (chereb) is feminine. A beetle (chargol) is masculine, while a bee (deborah) is feminine. In Greek, for example, logos is masculine, while rhema and euanggelion (gospel, good news) are neuter and biblos (book, scroll; from which we get "Bible") and didache (doctrine or teaching) are feminine. "Spirit" (pneuma) is neuter, while "comforter" (parakletos) is masculine. A chain (halusis) is feminine, a rope (schoinion) is neuter, while a leather strap (imas) and a nail (helos) are masculine. When these words are translated into English, we use "it" because they are things. If someone asks, "Where is the chain," we say "It is in the garage," not "She is in the garage." Thus, the point should be made that just because logos is masculine does not mean that the English pronoun "he" is the proper pronoun to use when associated with it. We assert that "it" is the proper pronoun to use in verses like John 1:2 and 3, etc.Comment:
In Hebrew, there are only masculine and female gender for nouns. The Septuagint translated the Hebrew into Greek. Michael wrote: John 1:10-18
10 He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. 11 He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. 12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: 13 who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. 14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’” 16 And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. 17 For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
29 The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’
Anyone who reads the passages will clearly see that the "Word" that John was speaking of and have introduced in John 1:1-3, is the Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, who was before John and even before the world which was made through Him. And that will be more clear and evident in the reading of the rest of scriptures in John.
Not so, not so very so. http://www.amatteroftruth.com/does-john-1-15-prove-jesus-preexistedJohn 1:15
John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before (G1715: before in time)
me: for he (has) before me (G4413: first in rank)….27 He it is, who coming after me is preferred (G4413:higher rank
[/b]) before me, whose shoe's latchet I am not worthy to unloose…30 This is he on behalf of whom I said after me comes a man who has a higher rank
than I, for he existed chief in rank(G4413)http://biblehub.com/lexicon/john/1-15.htmhttp://biblehub.com/lexicon/john/1-30.htm
“For he is before me” should have been translated as he is a higher rank than me “
Michael stated:You said "John 1:3 All things were made by it (I would choose “it” based on verse 2) and without it nothing was made."
I'd choose "He" based on verse 2.My Response: I’d choose “it” based on all the facts
. This choice is based on the facts, not some false trinity doctrine that came into existence in the bible 300 years or so after the original texts were written and copied.