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"Rules" question

Started by NorrinRadd, Thu Sep 22, 2016 - 11:15:15

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NorrinRadd

On "Flaming" -- multiple parts of Rule 1 -- and Rule 4 part e:

Is referring pejoratively to the common Pentecostal and Charismatic practice of "speaking in tongues" as "gibberish" considered a violation?

If not, why?

Nevertheless

It would depend on the situation. Simply using the term "gibberish" is not a violation, but if the intent of the post is to "harass, insult, belittle, threaten, defame or flame" another member, then it would be.

NorrinRadd

Quote from: Nevertheless on Thu Sep 22, 2016 - 11:27:58
It would depend on the situation. Simply using the term "gibberish" is not a violation, but if the intent of the post is to "harass, insult, belittle, threaten, defame or flame" another member, then it would be.

Ok, I think I understand.  Personally, I'm not a fan of "reports," and prefer Moderation to be very light.  I prefer to give a lot of latitude to free speech, probably about 50x more than most "Christian" sites find appropriate.  But while I like that to be *allowed*, I also prefer participants to be polite and considerate, at least until directly provoked.  To me, seeing "gibberish" or "babbling" or "mumbo-jumbo" or some such pejorative language casually employed is as ignorant and disrespectful as casually calling Trinitarians "polytheists."

His forever

 NorrinRadd, thank you, very well said as I have noticed those terms which are upsetting to me too but never commented.
::clappingoverhead::

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